flush flop - what to do with my set?

Second orbit at this table, no reads on opponents.

Some may state I should have raised my pair pre-flop since I was CO, but I never feel very comfortable raising pocket pairs lower than 99/TT so I decided just to limp in.

The flop showed cards I really didn't want to see but I didn't want to lay down my cards immediately. I thought about the chance of appr. 35% to improve my set and so take down a nice pot.

My question now is if I understood the concept of implied odds correctly?

Facing a c/r on the flop I thought that at least of one of the opponets had the flush and so I would have been able to stack him with an improved hand.

What would you have done in this situation?

No-Limit Hold'em, 0.05/0.1 $ BB (9 handed) Hand History Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com (Format: FlopTurnRiver)

UTG ($7.61)
UTG+1 ($11.90)
MP1 ($7.36)
MP2 ($2)
MP3 ($1.90)
Hero ($11.20)
Button ($12.82)
SB ($12.17)
BB ($10.15)

Preflop: Hero is CO with 7, 7. SB posts a blind of $0.05.
UTG calls $0.10, 1 fold, MP1 calls $0.10, 2 folds, Hero calls $0.10, 2 folds, BB checks.

Flop: ($0.45) 7, K, 9 (4 players)
BB checks, UTG checks, MP1 bets $0.3, Hero calls $0.30, BB raises to $1, UTG calls $1, MP1 folds, Hero ?


Thank you in advance.

This is an intersting question. I think I would probably call in this situation and watch the turn drop. If it pairs the board you are great, if it doesn't I might think you are still probably good. If the player flopped a flush he would not be raising and most likely would like to keep the pot multi-way. He could be sitting on a low flush and does not want to see another diamond drop. He also could be on a two pair.

Raise MP1's bet, if you are 3-bet on the flop by BB then, call unless the bet is huge, and you'll probably be paid off is board pairs I guess.

A very interesting hand. And a tough situation actually. What you really fear here is that one opponent has a flush and the other has 2pair. If one has K9 and the other a flush, you are only about 10%, needing a 7 or for the river to pair the turn card. Having 2 opponents in makes this a murky situation and I am quite curious what the more experienced NL players think about this. I would say call since you close the action and will have position. The big question is what do you do facing a big turn bet? Even if you fill up you can't be very happy given the flop action.

Originally Posted by Iwind

Raise MP1's bet...

My intention not to raise MP 1's bet was to get a cheap turn card because at this moment I was pretty sure that I would need some help and the chance to improve my set is appr. 15% from flop to turn (appr. 22% from turn to river).

You played it fine, just call. Call a turn bet unimproved if you get odds for it.

No reason to overcomplicate this, it's 10nl.

Preflop: Limping is OK
Flop: I would reraise MP1's raise. Two players had already checked, the only made hand that makes any sense in checking is Axd, and even in that case I would bet it. So by the time the action got to you - check, check, bet by MP there is a decent chance you have the best hand - the one thing you dont want is a 4th diamond hitting, so reraise the flop.

As played the CR by BB is very troubling, I would call and hoep the board pairs

I raise too in that situation. I don't see a flush being played like this. Maybe someone's holding the Ad, but I don't see someone working a flush like that. In my opinion, it looks like you got one person drawing to a flush at worst, the other one's sitting on a king.

I'm raising to get what i see as a flush draw out, probably checking the turn to hope the king improves and raising a bet / betting the river. If either one calls another raise (or both do), I fold to a bet and let them go at it (unless the board pairs).

Thanks for your comments. When the turn card was dealt I decided not to change the gears since BB and UTG were stacking themselves and I didn't want to give them a reason to think about what was going on.

Hypothetical question:
I raise MP 1's bet to $ 1 and BB raises to $ x. How big can X be so that I still have the (implied) odds to call the raise? About $2.00 - 2.50 ? Is there a change if UTG calls BB's raise since the effective stack now is smaller?



No-Limit Hold'em, $ 0.05/0.1 BB (9 handed)

Preflop: Hero is CO with 7, 7. SB posts a blind of $0.05.
UTG calls $0.10, 1 fold, MP1 calls $0.10, 2 folds, Hero calls $0.10, 2 folds, BB checks.

Flop: ($0.45) 7, K, 9 (4 players)
BB checks, UTG checks, MP1 bets $0.3, Hero calls $0.30, BB raises to $1, UTG calls $1, MP1 folds, Hero calls $0.70.

Turn: ($3.75) 7 (3 players)
BB bets $2, UTG calls $2, Hero calls $2.

River: ($9.75) 4 (3 players)
BB bets $5, UTG calls $4.61 (All-In), Hero raises to $8.20 (All-In), BB calls $2.15 (All-In).

Final Pot: $ 28.01
$1.05 from side pot #2
$4.83 from side pot #1
$22.13 from the main pot

Results:
BB shows [ Ad, 2d ]a flush, Ace high.
UTG shows [ Qd, 4d ]a flush, King high.
Hero shows [ 7c, 7h ]four of a kind, Sevens.

Hypothetical question:
I raise MP 1's bet to $ 1 and BB raises to $ x. How big can X be so that I still have the (implied) odds to call the raise? About $2.00 - 2.50 ? Is there a change if UTG calls BB's raise since the effective stack now is smaller?

There are different variables that affect the decision, but the logic is the following:
Assuming MP1 folds, and assuming we are behind and BB has a made flush:
You have 7 outs (14% to improve) on the turn and 10 outs (20% to improve) by the river after the turn.
Assuming he will call your push if you hit then
0.35*(min(your stack, his stack) + current pot) > min(your stack, his stack) to be correct.
Alternatively assuming his raise is X, if X < 0.14(current pot) you should also call