Quote Originally Posted by iopq

But when you know you're 40% against two overcards and your pot odds are laying you a little better than that, you can call an all-in with say J9s because you know it's an EV+ move with 5 cards to come even if your opponent has two overcards.
Could someone please explain the above with a bit more detail. I'm not quite following.

Is it that I'm 1.5:1 against (40%) and the pot odds are, say 2:1?

"Against two overcards"? How do I know I'm against two overcards? The example implies that this is still pre-flop.

And why can I call all-in with J9s (though I would only play something that weak from the big blind) and know that it's positive expected value?

Many thanks in advance.

Jigs