FUCKING HELL

Lets say we have A8, the flop is 885. What is the chance of him being dealt 88? 1/221 still, yeah. But now we know there are 3 8's oout he can't have that hand, so we can't be worried about 88, when we are ASSIGNING A RANGE

I'm not saying that the probability changes preflop. Your getting mixed up between probability of a hand preflop and assigning a range, calculating equity.

EDIT: Nice delete eugmac. I'm saying that the probability of him being deal 88 pre in the example is still the same but when we see two 8's on the flop and one in our hand, it then makes villains 88 impossible! AS you correctly stated there aren't 5 8's in the deck.