maths help please

so this is just our starting equation. F is villain's fold percentage, and y is the equity of the worst hand in our shoving range.

First it looks to me that there is a problem with your original equation. If I understand correctly, the pot before your play is 36.5. You shove your remaining 90. If villain calls, your equity is y (mind that this is your equity against his calling range). Let's look at what can happen:
- villain folds, your profit is 36.5
- villain calls and you win, your profit is 90+36.5=126.5
- villain calls and you loose, your loss is 90

So the equation should be:
0=F(36.5) + (1-F)(y)(126.5) + (1-F)(1-y)(-90)

No?

Let's first fix that, then we'll look at the rest.

Originally Posted by daviddem

First it looks to me that there is a problem with your original equation. If I understand correctly, the pot before your play is 36.5. You shove your remaining 90.

this is true.

Originally Posted by daviddem

If villain calls, your equity is y (mind that this is your equity against his calling range).

we're not trying to determine the EV of shoving as such. more specifically (as best i understand), we are looking to set up an equation into which we can put certain y values, and it will give us the corresponding F values which = 0, for reasons outlined above. it is for this reason that "y" is is the equity of the worst hand in our shoving range against villain's calling range.

Originally Posted by daviddem

Let's look at what can happen:
- villain folds, your profit is 36.5
- villain calls and you win, your profit is 90+36.5=126.5
- villain calls and you loose, your loss is 90

So the equation should be:
0=F(36.5) + (1-F)(y)(126.5) + (1-F)(1-y)(-90)

No?

i don't think so. for reasons stated above. though i guess an incredibly long way around my problem here would be to do a million of these and find which y and F values = 0 through trial and error. though the shortcut version seems far more appealing, if i can figure out how the f to do it.