question on "the nuts"

I'm still not sure what the exact definition of the nuts is. Is the nuts the best hand possible, or simply what is almost certainly the best hand? For example if I start with Q 5, and the flop comes out Q Q 5, then I have the nuts. But if an 8 hits the turn, then is it no longer the nuts, or is it still the nuts since probably no one has Q 8? (depending on betting of course)

i thought "the nuts" was the best possible hand on the board i.e after all 5 of the community cards are out

edit: so in your example "the nuts" would be Q8

The nuts is the best possible hand right now. (75 with the flop of 468)
The stone cold nuts is the best possible hand (like AA on a flop of AA2 rainbow)

Best hand possible...it changes as new cards come out. So while you had the nuts on the flop...Q8 would now have them on the turn.

the only time you will have the stone cold nuts (will not be beaten no matter what) is if you flop a straight flush where the high card is a hole card or you have a ten or higher.

Originally Posted by rebuyman

the only time you will have the stone cold nuts (will not be beaten no matter what) is if you flop a straight flush where the high card is a hole card or you have a ten or higher.

On the flop thats true, but on the turn it's eaasy to have a non straight flush stone cold nuts.

Originally Posted by Laeelin

The stone cold nuts is the best possible hand (like AA on a flop of AA2 rainbow)

I'm totally hitting my backdoor royal flush draw against your quads.

Originally Posted by Aplomado

... since probably no one has Q 8? (depending on betting of course)

There's no probably about the nuts. The nuts is the best possible hand.

If the board shows AKK62 and you hold AA, you don't have the nuts. But you are probably not beat.