Nevar!
Yes.
No. Every probability distribution has an associated Cumulative Distribution function, which is the integral of the prob. dist.
An integral gives the area under the curve (of whatever function it integrates).
Yes and yes (and yes).
Nit picking:
Variance is a value, or scalar. A figure is a 2D object (a form is a 3D object).
Yes.
In your example, the only reason it's an "area" is because the data was in length units, and length units, squared, is an area.
Don't put too much weight on my use of the word area as pertains to
variance.
If we were measuring the surface area of the dogs (why? STFU and measure dem bitches!), then the
variance would be in mm^4... and we'd want to take the square root so that it was in mm^2, like the areas we measured in the data
set.
It's about the apples-to-apples comparison.
Not only do the units match, but the value is directly cooperative with our mean.
So, if our mean value is 20 with a stdev of 5, then that's easy to immediately read off:
That's 20 +/- 5 @ ~68% CI and 20 +/- 10 @ ~95% CI
Not much garbage, and it was my use of the word "area" that started it. Other than that, yes, yes, yes -
*ugh*
- since we're using cooperative distributions.
There are distributions with no
well-defined mean or
variance, but thankfully they do not concern us in poker.
Originally Posted by MadMojoMonkey
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