Been arguing with a friend about an online hand he played recently that I witnessed. Here's the setup:

Friend is showing some newbies the ins-and-outs of online poker. He's cleaning up in a tight-aggressive 9-handed low stakes LIMIT cash game. He picks up TT in middle position. Unknown UTG raises. Tight UTG+1 re-raises. UTG+1 has only shown down big cards, and it looks like he's playing solid position poker.

It folds to Friend who, to my astonishment, makes the call. Flop comes rags, UTG checks, UTG+1 raises, Friend folds.

Afterward, I berate my buddy for making the preflop call. He counters that he knew he was beat preflop (we both put UTG+1 on AA, KK, QQ, JJ, or AK), but my friend says he was shopping for a set of tens. He says that the implied odds of getting paid off in this situation was worth making the call. I say, he was dominated preflop, so why take an 8:1 flyer, looking for the set with only two other players in the hand?

Can someone explain how (if?) the concept of implied odds works in this situation? I think this was a truly awful call, but my friend makes his living playing online poker and I don't, so I have to give him some cred.

Cheers,
-Bug