The pot went like this:

Intitialy = 3 $ (both blinds).
Pre-flop: Villain bets 8 $ (pot 11 $). Me calls (pot 19 $). Third player calls (pot 27 $, minus rake = around 25 $)
Flop. Villain bets 15 $ (pot 40 $). Me raise to 65 $ (pot 105 $). Third player drops. Villain raise All In (pot 155 $ + about 130 $ from Villain's reraise for total around 300$ before I decide to add my own 130 or no).

So, I had pot odds somewhere around 3:1, maybe a little less, is that ok? And thus, since my call had a 35 % chance of success, or about 2:1, it was an OK call? Just a yes or no answer on that would be appreciated. As I stated in my first post, I kinda of understand the concept of pot odds, but it's when it comes down to applying it to my game and using it to make the decision that I have some hard time, especially since I don't want to take too much time making decisions at a live table.

Oskar: when you say "he seems to have you covered", what does it mean? That my opponent knew he had a better made hand that mine, but that I was on a draw?

By the way, after I Called his All In move, he said aloud "you've probably got AK" (before my cards were shown). If he really though that, wasn't his move a bad one since he was only on a pair of kings with probably a lower kicker than mine? Was he trying to get me to fold with his re-raise? (And maybe his cards were suited in club or spade, but anyway for the post flop decision, it didn't matter much since he had no straight nor flush draw on the board).

Oskar: You say I had to put 130 $ to win 230 $. Are you implying that I should consider the 65 $ I raised into the flop as "still mine" when evaluating wether or not to call a re-raise (wether that be a push for all in as I had, or another kind of re-raise, for exemple if we had both had bigger stacks and he'd just retort with a 200 $ raise to my 65 $ shot)?