The FTR flop odds chart indicates the odds of flopping exactly one pair by matching a hole card = 26.939

I compute slightly different odds using the following math.

Can anyone tell me what my error is assuming the FTR chart is correct?
Starting with 2 unpaired cards, what is the probability that you will flop exactly 1 pair by matching a hole card?
Factors to consider:
There are 50 unseen cards.
Six of the unseen cards match one of the two cards in the starting hand.
Three of the unseen cards match one of the unpaired cards in the starting hand.
Three of the unseen cards match the other unpaired card in the starting hand.
Forty four of the unseen cards do not match either of the starting cards.
Using combinations:

Probability: (6 C 1)*(44 C 2) / (50 C 3) = 0.289591837

Odds ((1-0.2896))/0.2896=2.453

Using permutations:

Probability: (3 C 1) * (6 P 1)*(44 P 2) / (50 P 3) = 0.289591837

Odds ((1-0.2896))/0.2896=2.453