So x is a whole, counting number. What's the probability that x is even? Surely it's 50%, right? How is this the case unless there are twice as many whole counting numbers as there are whole counting numbers that are even?

Maybe we're unable to use our mathematic system to calculate probabilities that involve infinite numbers, but I can't see how it's not more likely for any x that we know nothing about to be a counting number than it is that it's an even counting number.

It does make my head hurt a bit to think about.