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 Originally Posted by wufwugy
How does neurochemistry signaling a choice before the choice is consciously signaled demonstrate lack of free will?
Cause precedes effect in any rational model. So if the change occurs in the brain at a point in time before we have the phenomenological experience of 'will', then the latter must have been caused by the former.
Moreover, since we can't directly introspect about the activity of neurons in our brain, the logical conclusion is that their activity gives rise to our decisions, which we (the mind) then interprets as itself exercising free will.
To elaborate on a previous example, if you're driving down the road and suddenly find yourself taking a left turn for no apparent reason, do you think that's more likely an instance of 'free will' without conscious decision (which seems oxymoronic), or that the brain made up its own mind (speaking metaphorically) to go down that road?
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