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Okay, I am not faulting those that lay down pre-flop. However, I don't see how it is that bad of a play to call this FOR SET VALUE ONLY. I have been thinking and have come up with two trains of thought.
If you hit your set one out of 8 times, you need the pot to be $23 or so to make that profitable by pot odds alone. I can't see how it doesn't get there. With the call, the pot preflop becomes $9.50. The $3 dollar lead on the flop becomes more like $4 or $4.50. If the cold-caller only calls, the pot is already $17.50 before it ever gets to you. Then say the cold caller hits bottom set as he did in the hand and pushes, you get his stack and maybe shorty too. No way that pot is less than $45. And I can't see how it is any worse than limp/calling 4x raise with 33, flop comes down 3T7, raiser c-bets, you raise, and raiser folds. That doesn't get you 8:1 either.....
Then I ran it through pokerstove:
Text results appended to pokerstove.txt
8,923,608,540 games 15.094 secs 591,202,367 games/sec
Board:
Dead:
equity (%) win (%) tie (%)
Hand 1: 26.1963 % 26.04% 00.15% { 7c7d }
Hand 2: 50.0759 % 49.35% 00.73% { JJ+, AKs, AKo } reraisers range?
Hand 3: 23.7278 % 22.94% 00.78% { KK-22, A8s+, KTs+, QJs, JTs, ATo+, KJo+, QJo } raise/call reraise range?
We are 3:1 dogs getting 4.42 to 1 odds. Did I do that right?
After the flop:
5,625,690 games 1.453 secs 3,871,775 games/sec
Board: 3s 7s 5c
Dead:
equity (%) win (%) tie (%)
Hand 1: 85.2578 % 84.77% 00.49% { 7c7d }
Hand 2: 07.9783 % 07.36% 00.62% { JJ+, AKs, AKo }
Hand 3: 06.7639 % 06.14% 00.62% { KK-22, A8s+, KTs+, QJs, JTs, ATo+, KJo+, QJo }
Renton, I remember you saying one time that the way we get paid off in $25NL is by sets. "See a flop with any pocket pair you can for a reasonable price". I think $2.25 into a $9.50 pot is reasonable preflop, especially since I can dump it unimproved on the flop. FWIW, a reraise to $5 would make me dump this....
I am not discounting the fold, I just don't understand how calling PF is bad. Explain?
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