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 Originally Posted by Aces
Why couldn't he limp with AJ/KJ/QJ or even 65?
Don't understand why chk/raising that flop would indicate 32 or similar. Wouldn't a chk/raise say "I have at least TP", or same thing if you just call the flop and lead out on the turn? Wouldn't he normally lay down a bluff and call or reraise a real hand?
I'd have trouble calling the turn bet having no info after just chk/calling the flop and checking the turn.
Reading Fnords posts have started to change my mind on how to play NL Ring. I think he made a good move here by NOT raising.
Why, you ask?
Well he flops top pair, and has a feeling that his hand is good on the flop. While its a vulnerable hand, it could still be a good hand here. Villain didn't raise preflop. Villain made (according to what I gather from fnords last post)a suspiciously large flop bet, possibly to protect a hand an induce a fold.
If you feel your hand is good here, why not call? Why not see as Fnord puts it "how far he'll take it"? When the two pair hits on the river and villain pushes, I think you're likely in good shape and definitely call. I don't believe he has a straight and a set seems unlikely with the flop aggression.
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