a JJ question...

Ok, apologies once again for the lack of precise HH, I will try and get into the habit of producing them (I promise!)

I am just after some advice (and hopefully some solace!) on how I played one hand.

Right, it is a $5 Poker Room SnG. I have only played about 4 or 5 hands out of the 20-odd that have been passed, won a couple of little pots and had one nice pick up which moves me up to about $2175.

Then comes this hand ……

Blinds 25/50
I am UTG+2 and dealt pocket Jacks.

Now I realise that they are not a super strong hand, but still for me a raise here (?!) which I promptly do, 3xBB – 150 (maybe I could have gone stronger 4x? 5x?)

Player next to me calls

Short stack 2 seats later (3 after me) moves all-in for $580 (he has been yo-yo-ing in chips since the off and has just lost a big pot)

Folded round to me, I call, other player folds here.

I show JJ, he shows A6o. Bang, A 8 8 on the flop, no J in sight after that.

Sure, it didn’t break me, but I ended up on the bubble and I was left a little puzzled by this hand because

1. If he’s been paying attention, he must have me pegged as a tight player and should have me pegged as tight-aggressive. Am I just to put this down to the fact that I play on $5 tables and people just DON’T pay attention?
2. Why move on A6 when u are not in THAT much trouble (still have nearly $600 – 12xBB – in chips)?
3. Do people think he actually wanted a call here?
4. Do people think I actually should have called here?

Any comments?

Oh, forgot about this earlier. Let me just check the odds on this with people ……

The pot = my 150 raise + next players 150 call + his 580 all in + 75 blinds = 955
Another 430 to me will leave the total pot at 1385.
So my odds are 430/1385 (Right?!) = ~31%

If I have JJ and he has QQ, KK or AA, I am a 4:1 underdog and this is a crap call
If he has TT or less, I am the 4:1 favourite and this is a very good call
If, as I thought, he had Ace ‘n’ face, I am about 55% to win and this call is still good
In the actual circumstances, A6o makes me a huge favourite and again this is a good call.

I’ve at least worked this out right, haven’t I?!?

Originally Posted by Staresy

1. If he’s been paying attention, he must have me pegged as a tight player and should have me pegged as tight-aggressive. Am I just to put this down to the fact that I play on $5 tables and people just DON’T pay attention?

I play exclusively on PokerRoom and have noticed that in some $5 rooms, I am the only one paying attention. Unless he took a bad beat, having lost nearly 2/3rds of his chips by the second level is usually indicative of a person who doesn't play well...which means he will push with anything. I don't know if a higher bet would have shaken him from his push...he saw the ace and decided now is the time.

2. Why move on A6 when u are not in THAT much trouble (still have nearly $600 – 12xBB – in chips)?

4 digit stack envy. I really think this occurs! Even though he can make nearly 8 runs around the ttable, he feels that because he is below a 1,000 he is shortstacked. I'm guessing he would push with any pocket pair and any hand with an A in it.

3. Do people think he actually wanted a call here?

I think so. These types usually suck postflop and would lose thier nerve if they just called. Probably figured this was the best way to get back into the tourney.

4. Do people think I actually should have called here?

I think it was an OK call. Jacks are tricky as you have 3 overcards that can hurt you. You were still about 70% preflop to beat him. Let me ask you....if you knew he was holding A6, would you have called preflop? If so, then you made the right decision.