Quote Originally Posted by Vinterriket
If villain has a flush, that means he called a preflop raise with an unpaired hand without A or K. And then villain is fastplaying a flopped flush. How likely is this based on your read of villain?
I just know this is the postflop play that I'd make if I had the baby flush (though I like to think I wouldn't have called a PFR with a SC with fewer than 3 others in the pot. And nothing lower than 54s).