Quote Originally Posted by Jimmy Mac
Pre-flop raiser is loose and only has 60BB, so I'm happy getting it all in on this flop. I just CR the flop and stick the rest in on the turn.
I agree I would be happy to get it all in too. However this assumes villain cooperates with me. I guess my purpose is not to win the pot every time it's to win as much money as I can and lose as little as I can. If he doesn't have top pair or a draw then the c/r will win his c-bet but he'll fold to my strength winning me a small amount. However if he has a draw or a hand like KJ then the c/r may scare him off again winning me a small bet. If on the other hand I bet out he might call this and call another bet on the turn. He may even call the river with KJ. (All this assumes he doesn't improve). However if his hand has missed he probably won't call my flop bet and I win very little. So the question is how often does he have nothing and how often does he have a hand he will continue with if I don't blow him away. Sadly I don't have any clue how to assign percentages and calculate the equity so I don't know if over a large sample betting out or check raising wins me more. And I'm not considering the dangers of allowing him to continue in the hand in position, drawing out and winning bets from me or already being ahead. I'm also not considering that he might be bad and call a c/r when he shouldn't or the possibility of check calling his missed c-bet and calling his second barrel if he's aggressive and puts me on the flush draw. Damn poker seems complicated

Does any of what I'm saying make sense? Anyone got any input? It's great that people take time to give me advice but I really need to understand why one line is theoretically superior to another if I can