Someone 'splain this to me please?

Watching p3echy_keen's latest video on cardrunners and he did something which I didn't really get. I'll lay out the hand here so hopefully someone can explain.

2kNL 6max. Shortstack raises to 60 UTG and gets a call from CO with $1230, folds to p3achy in the SB with 88. He calls, BB folds. He doesn't seem to have any mad reads on either villain and most play up to this pint has been pretty standard.

Flop is 934 with 2 spades.
p3eachy leads for 120 into the 200 pot.

Is this ok?

Any overcards raising pre have whiffed so it's a great place to take the initiative, imo. He finds out pretty quick if there's a bigger hand behind and can reevaulate if he's called/raised, instead of dealing with a c-bet behind him in the dark. How is this not standard? 'cause he's not the preflop raiser?

I didn't know there was a better way to play the hand.

Quote:

---

Originally Posted by IowaSkinsFan

I didn't know there was a better way to play the hand.

---

Right looks like I have some poker stoving to do later?