[10NL] top DP on monotone flop against loose passive

Villain is 50/5/2 donkey I wanted hard to stack off.

From previous action I thought my top DP was well over his range.

Do i try to slow down when the 5 pairs the board and makes FH from DB i was beating?

$0.05/$0.1 No Limit Holdem
8 players
Converted at weaktight.com

Stacks:
UTG jeansni ($2.00)
UTG+1 Hero ($10.00)
MP1 narayano ($10.66)
MP2 CrownBet ($11.44)
CO SumySumy ($10.22)
BTN JasonSchriv ($26.97)
SB mighty_joe2 ($1.74)
BB ChinzaR1 ($2.05)

Pre-flop: ($0.15, 8 players) Hero is UTG+1 :js: :ah:
1 fold, Hero raises to $0.35, 3 folds, JasonSchriv calls $0.35, 2 folds

Flop: :jd: :5d: :ad: ($0.85, 2 players)
Hero bets $0.80, JasonSchriv calls $0.80

Turn: :9s: ($2.45, 2 players)
Hero bets $2, JasonSchriv calls $2

River: :5h: ($6.45, 2 players)
Hero ?

Fold preflop. Otherwise, get it in on the river imo. Against a player like that top two pair is well ahead of his range.

Just my opinion obviously because I suck.

meh, raising preflop isnt terrible, but generally from utg +1 id fold aj off. you played the hand well, now shove the river.

Looks fine though I agree with a PF fold usually. Villain never has a set here, because he'd be terrified about letting a diamond out. He'd raise somewhere. So your hand is going to win here almost 100%. I shove river probably 90%, and check/shove 10%.

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Originally Posted by euphoricism

Looks fine though I agree with a PF fold usually. Villain never has a set here, because he'd be terrified about letting a diamond out. He'd raise somewhere. So your hand is going to win here almost 100%. I shove river probably 90%, and check/shove 10%.

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This, except pre-flop is fine (note that we're 8-handed).

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Do i try to slow down when the 5 pairs the board and makes FH from DB i was beating?

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I don't understand this. Can you please explain?

I agree with much of what has been said thus far. fold pre most of the time, bet each street.

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Originally Posted by BankItDrew

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Do i try to slow down when the 5 pairs the board and makes FH from DB i was beating?

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I don't understand this. Can you please explain?

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It is me speaking not so good english and being result oriented as villain had A5s and rivered his FH (as would have 95s). I shoved for my last 5$ but looking back at it I was wondering if I still want to stack off at the river when previous lower DP now beat me and I only beat other aces (wich is still a big part of his range)

Anyway thanks for all your comments, I am a regular reader of FR and SHNL but it is really interesting to post and read your replies

About folding pre, I really wanted to play with this kind of hand against villain (which happened), and I think other villains were pretty tight.

But it is true it might be a leak I have too and it would explain why I am down to 3 BI after 3,5k hands at NL10. I am running 22/15 and around 16/12 for the 3 first seats. Maybe too loose?

Bet the river if the guy is pretty loose/passive because a weak ace still calls you down