Technical question for the smart people
Bear with me please, this will probably be very confusing.
This is my graph of hands where I call out of the blinds to a UTG, MP, CO, BTN raise with a pocket pair <JJ preflop and take any action on the flop:
http://i80.photobucket.com/albums/j1...to/callpre.jpg
I can deduce from this graph that my overall strategy for calling pocket pairs from the blinds is profitable (over this sample size).
This is the same graph except here I only include hands where I c/c the flop after the same preflop action:
http://i80.photobucket.com/albums/j1...prec-cflop.jpg
Ignoring shania effects for a minute, is it fair to say that if I just c/f the flop every time I don't hit a set then I would be up more money in the first, overall, graph?
I'm concerned that if I want to analyse the profitability of only actions after the flop c/c rather than the hand as a whole which includes preflop, then I should be adjusting the bb/100 lose rate in the second graph upwards by a rate of 3bb/hand. The rate of 3bb is calculated because I assume that every preflop open raise is to 3bb (I know that's not realistic).