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Yeah, I realize the standard play in this situation is to just call the river bet and I probably do call about 95% of the time here, but I think we have to look at two key factors, villian's likely hand range and my ability to sell a bluff on the river.
I think villian being tight/passive really helps to narrow down his hand range. He opens for 3xBB UTG, so right there I know he has a hand, and he confirms this when he calls my preflop reraise. Now he just check/calls my flop c-bet, so right there I know he doesn't have AKo or AQo. This narrows his range down significantly. Now he probably has a hand like QQ/JJ (I really don't think he has KK here but it probably plays the same as QQ/JJ), TT, maybe 99, and possibly but unlikely a hand like K Q . I have the A so this really helps to eliminate a flush draw.
On the turn I checked behind to minimize the amount I lose to TT and to not scare him off QQ/JJ because I'm pretty sure he folds QQ/JJ if I bet something like 2/3 - 3/4 pot. Of course checking here is bad if he has a flush draw, but like I said above it was unlikely for him to have diamonds so that's just the risk I decided to take. Now the river is pretty meaningless unless he has 99, and he bets out less than 1/4 pot. I think he bets more with TT/99 and there's almost no way he bets busted diamonds like this. So that leaves QQ/JJ which makes perfect sense for a tight/passive to block the river and/or put out a small value bet. Therefore I think a value raise is in order here, but how much to raise? I really wanted to sell a bluff here, so I didn't want to do something donkish like minraise. Hence the rather large river raise and he called and mucked J J .
Do you think it's +EV to narrow down villian's range so tightly here and make these thin value bets?
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