Quote Originally Posted by Ravageur
WTF?!!! Where in the original post do we talk about having Top Pair? I'm just as baffled as Genitruc here. People just seem to be replying to some imaginary post. Obviously if you have top pair and the nut flush draw it makes a big fucking difference. But that's not what we're talking about here is it?
The original post was edited!!!! I really don't know where I pulled that from, but maybe i just assumed because he said "raiser has all 1 pair hands beaten" which is completely untrue.

Frankly, this isn't that difficult to understand. Will he fold to a push? If yes, push, if not, don't push. If not, are you getting pot odds to call? If yes, call; if no, fold. Usually your opponent will give you good odds to call with his aggression, and I can't associate a raise from a tight player to automatically mean two pair or better. What does this tight player call with? Broadway cards, pocket pairs, monsters, who knows?

And where do you get 18% draw on the flop in the OP?

The type of flop does matter somewhat. Is villain more likely to have a set on a 247 board or a JQK board facing a preflop raise and he just flat calls? Which is he likely to have two pair more often?

This is really nothing more than a pot odds/folding equity situation.