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 Originally Posted by IowaSkinsFan
 Originally Posted by Renton
When you perfectly balance your bluffing frequency, it puts your opponent in "tough spots" but does it really make you any money? Don't you have to bet exploitable ranges to exploit?
If there is money in the pot, and you force your opponent to fold, you make money.
Game theory is really hard to understand, I struggle with it the same way you do. I've asked the same questions you are asking, and the truth is I still don't know the answers. Which is why my response to that post was that sentence; your statement is wrong, but I can only explain it to you that much. I have no idea why its the case, and what it has to do with poker, but I am pretty sure it has to do a lot with poker.
Simplifying my above range, lets say that villain always has 5, 6, and 7. We have 8, 9, and 0, and theres a pot size bet left, we'll pretend pot is 100 dollars.
If we shove our whole range he has a 2:1 call and is exactly a 2:1 dog to win.
ev(call) = (.33 * 300) - 100 = 0
ev(fold) = 0
ev(ourbet[always calls]) = (.66 * 300) - 100 = +100
ev(ourbet[always folds]) = (1 * 200) - 100 = +100
ergo,
ev(ourbet[nomatterwhat] = +100 (the pot size)
So basically the idea is that we always win the pot, nothing more nothing less. But more importantly, while we were entitled to only 66% of the 100 pot to begin with (our range being 66% vs his range), when we bet this range we always win that plus 33 more dollars.
So i guess the answer is, when we feel that the ev of only betting our nuts and always checkfolding our busted hands is > $33, then it becomes better to bet everything.
(i don't know if i got any of this right)
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