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Might be dumb/obvious even incorrect theory/equity question.
Probably super basic, but I thought I'd post it anyway.
Question is should you call a bet with a made hand with few outs (no implied odds) if the current pot odds are in your favour if you know villain is likely to bet the next street with a similiar range. (I think I know the answer but I didn't know it until like this week, which might be really bad.)
E.g. You are on the turn with QQ on a 2223 turn villain bets pot $18 into $20, For the example lets say you know he either has JJ or KK/AA and you know he will value-bet the river near pot again. You can see by pokerstove you have 35% equity vs. his range so you have the pot odds to make the call. If the the river is a J/K/A you will fold and if it is a Q he will bet-fold. (for this contrived example) The river is a 3-10 card. Villain bets near pot again $50 into $56 you have 33.33% equity vs. his range so a call is profitable here so you call.
(On the turn you are calling $18 into a $20 pot. about 2/3 of the time you will lose $18=-$36 but 1/3 of the time you will win his bet $18 plus the pot/dead money $20 = +$38 so the call is profitable. On the river you are calling $50 into a $56 pot. exactly 2/3 of the time you will lose $50=-$100 but 1/3 of the time you win his bet $50 plus the pot $56=+$106 so profitable.)
Were your calls correct? Assuming raising was not an option..
The example might look obscure but there are lots of situations where I have a marginal made hand not strong enough to stack off with but I will call bets on a couple of streets if the equity I have vs. villains range is better than the pot odds I'm currently getting.
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