should i always cbet after i 3bet?

Texas Hold'em $0.50 5max

Seat 1: uii23 [ JH,JC ] ($49.35 in chips)
Seat 3: rezo55 ($44.65 in chips)
Seat 6: FishyKicker ($49.25 in chips)
Seat 8: rce944 ($49.80 in chips) 43/26 over 112 hands
Seat 10: SchaMue ($24.85 in chips)
ANTES/BLINDS
rezo55 posts blind ($0.25), FishyKicker posts blind ($0.50).

PRE-FLOP
rce944 bets $2, SchaMue folds, uii23 bets $6, rezo55 folds, FishyKicker folds, rce944 calls $4.

FLOP [board cards AS,8H,10D ]
rce944 checks, uii23 bets $8, rce944 bets $25, uii23 folds.

its always a tough spot when you 3bet preflop get called and didnt hit the flop. are A-high flops special because most hands that call a 3bet have a ace in it? if i would have been oop should i have cbet it too?


thanks a lot

ps: does anybody know a hand converter for pokerroom? FTRs doesnt work.

i always put out a 2/3 p0t c-bet on an A high flop after ive 3 bet. So many villains call 3-bets incorrectly with PP's, QJs, etc. that it becomes profitable to rep the Ace every time. This is unless you 3-bet a 7/3 nit and he calls.

do you also cbet every time against a 43/26 donk?

Originally Posted by AK:47

do you also cbet every time against a 43/26 donk?

when there is an Ace on the flop? Even more so.