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 Originally Posted by Deanglow
As played, on the flop, we virtually have the nuts, and are not folding at any point. Original raiser bets pot, and we checkraise. The range you give Villain after this is way too tight. I'd say A10, 77, 99, JJ+ (heart or not), KQhh, set.
The turn is a great card, making it less likely he has a set. Bet 50/call a shove is best here. Bet river for value if called.
I appreciate the feedback! I am new to the forum, and I am glad to learn from you experienced players. I have a comment and some questions, though-
I agree that preflop you should try and get it all in with Aces, or at least limp/reraise- What I meant in the beginning of my post is that his decision to limp-call, although not the standard play preflop, cannot cause him to lose money until after the flop. (of course, if he attempts that play everytime, he will not be best after the flop most of the time) Yes, it was not the standard play with Aces, but nonetheless, you don't make or lose money until after all the cards are dealt.
My questions follow (with all respect to your experience):
1. How is an overpair containing a heart virtually the nuts here? You have a redraw, but you are still behind to many hands-
2. Where are you getting his hand range from? Isn't the whole point of this post that we have no read on the villain? It seems to me that it is an arbitrary assignment based off of some limited statistics (I could be wrong-)
3. How does the 8c let you know that a set is unlikely?
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