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Can someone please explain to me the merits to betting this flop? I understand that we can be ahead a decent % of the time, and that we get thin value from QQ/JJ hands. However, I doubt we get more than 1 street of value from these hands. Also by betting the flop I think we reduce the chances that villain will bluff, which as our hand is primarily a bluff-catcher (as we lose to the majority of his "value" range), then I don't see how reduces the chances we see a bluff is going to help.
And I don't think I'm being exploited here. That's not my reasoning for believing a call might be in order. It's because I think just do to simple math, as elipses pointed out, we have the needed equity to make this call. His value range, even if we put hands like AK/AQ in his range which I still believe is less unlikely, then it's really only 5-9 combos of hands {AA/AK/AQ}. To call this river bet, I need only 29%ish equity. If he is betting 2-4 combos that I beat on this river then I should be calling. That is to say, if he bets this river with only {AK/AQ/AA/TT}, then we are correct to call. And I think this a reasonable assumption, because if villain does bet the turn with a pair such as TT/JJ, then come river he is highly likely to think he is not good, and therefore he is likely to either c/f or shove as a bluff.
Another thought... I talked to villain shortly after this hand, and he claims he had Q9s, and was intending to c/r the flop. I think a c/r on this flop is pretty atrocious as the value range he is repping is so small, and relatively unlikely to play in this manner {AK/AQ/AA}. So for you individuals stating that you would bet the flop, what is your plan if he does check/raise? I would be highly inclined to make a "hero" call, for the reasons I stated above. Also if we bet flop, and he calls, then turn goes check/check, on the river we are likely in the same spot. But having eliminated some portion of his bluffs.
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