I dont understand why i cant do this but i cant grasp the concept of expressing a percentage in odds form i.e. 34% into a x to 1 odd.
05-08-2009 11:50 AM
#1
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05-08-2009 11:59 AM
#2
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If odds of something are 1:1 that means that it's as likely to happen as it is not to happen. |
05-08-2009 12:02 PM
#3
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If you have a 34% chance of winning, that means you will lose 66% of the time. So 66:34 or approx 2:1. | |
05-08-2009 12:03 PM
#4
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34% = 34/100 = 17/50 |
05-08-2009 04:57 PM
#5
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I think the other guys have answered your question. | |
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05-10-2009 08:30 AM
#6
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05-10-2009 02:50 PM
#7
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You already have it in odds form if you have the percentage. Express the odds as X% | |