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Do implied odds cover this situation?
Party Poker No-Limit Hold'em, $ BB (10 handed) converter
UTG+2 ($27.15)
MP1 ($9.75)
MP2 ($7.75)
MP3 ($77.8)
CO ($31.34)
Button ($22.35)
SB ($16.05)
BB ($13.85)
Hero ($32.9)
UTG+1 ($29.3)
Preflop: Hero is UTG with T , A . SB posts a blind of $0.1.
Hero raises to $1, UTG+1 calls $1, UTG+2 calls $1, 2 folds, MP3 calls $1, 4 folds.
Flop: ($4.35) 5 , 4 , 7 (4 players)
Hero bets $2.5, UTG+1 raises to $5, UTG+2 folds, MP3 calls $5, Hero calls $2.50.
Turn: ($19.35) J (3 players)
Hero checks, UTG+1 checks, MP3 bets $10, Hero folds, UTG+1 calls $10.
River: ($39.35) 9 (2 players)
UTG+1 checks, MP3 checks.
Final Pot: $39.35
Results in white below:
UTG+1 has 4c 4d (three of a kind, fours).
MP3 has 7d 7h (three of a kind, sevens).
Outcome: MP3 wins $39.35.
The flop bet was to see if I could take down the flop right there after being the preflop raiser (yes, marginal play I know... gotta stop raising in EP with that stuff). The flop call after UTG+1 raised was with good odds.
What I'm wondering is if I should have called the turn bet. I knew that I was beat by one of them, but figured that my odds were good *if* UTG+1 called... I deliberated, and decided that I wasn't sure that he would call, so I folded this hand. The river came down and I cried a little, but I know to play the theory, not the results. Should I have called the 10$ bet?
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