If you were offered a game where u had a 51% chance of winning and a win payed 1:1, how much of your bankroll would it be correct to wager.

I'm thinking it's X * (number of outcomes to be ahead 1 bet) = bankroll

Algebra: bankroll / (outcomes) = X

So in this example, in 100 trials, you would be 2 bets ahead (51 wins +51, 49 loses - 49, net +2). So in 50 trials you would be 1 bet ahead so I think it would be correct to bet 1/50th of your bankroll.

Is this correct?