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 Originally Posted by doggz
 Originally Posted by dsaxton
 Originally Posted by doggz
 Originally Posted by ville18
If u had him on overs, especially diamonds, why did you let him draw?
First off, like someone said I'm still behind. I dislike putting my money in behind.
Second, if he only has overs, he is going to fold to my raise and call if he has a pocket pair. Raising gives me a small bit if folding equity, which I believe is not worth it if I'm wrong, which is will some % of the time.
Third, I'm out of position. I'd have to continue my bet on the turn, and then would have to fold to a raise and be out even more chips.
Fourth, If I am correct like I believe I am, he will continue adding chips into the pot, and on the river I'm likely to face the largest bet. He has AKd and is ahead. I check and call the flop. A good card comes on the turn for me, he bets I call. A river diamond comes he bets I fold.
It costs me 170$ to win a 900$ pot with that I have 47% equity in (if he does have axd).
It costs me 170$ to win a 900$+ pot that I have 22% equity in (if he has an overpair). If my 2 pair or trips, or straight come I win a lot more then just 900$, so I just added a +.
It costs me 170$ to win a 900$ pot that I have 77% equity in (if he has what he actually did)
How is it bad if he folds overcards? This is like saying "I didn't want to bet my overpair because he'd just fold his flush draw." You chose to gamble all the way to the river with a marginal hand, which is ok, I guess, but most people would prefer not to.
Also, you said that he'll call a flop check-raise with an overpair, and that'll you'll have to continue your bet on the turn. This makes no sense. If he calls your flop raise and you infer he has an overpair, why can't you just check-fold on the turn knowing that you're probably way behind and will have a difficult time bluffing him out?
There are probably a variety of ways to play this hand, but you have to admit that yours gave you almost no read on his hand, and left you calling huge bets on a pure guess.
And your math doesn't make any sense either. How could you possibly risk only $170 in a heads-up pot to win $900? You're obviously going to have to risk at least what you expect to win if you're correct.
It makes full sense. I have to call a 50$ flop bet and 120$ turn bet = 170$. If the river comes and is a diamond JQKA I fold. If it is my gin card I check raise, if it is a blank I check call. I'm risking 170$.
You check-call what on the river? A $0 bet (since you're only risking $170 in the hand) which somehow causes the pot to have $900 in it?
You are correct that on the flop and turn you have only risked around $170, but the pot doesn't contain $900 on the turn. It contains $900 on the river after you call a substantial bet, at which point you've risked more than $170. This is pretty simple.
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