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I am clearly a loser, since for the last 12 hours or so i have been eagerly awaiting a chance to explain my logic at the time of the hand (i was in class when i responded briefly last night) lol. Now i am at work and have a few minutes, so here it goes...
If villain is a reasonably intelligent player (a fair assumption at 200NL i figure), when i four bet the flop he has to consider my two likely holding
1). air
2). J-x
If he is holding an overpair, say eights or nines he is in a tough spot so i would think he would defer to any information he has gathered about me.
I don't think he could peg me as an aggressive player based on what has happened at the table, since i have folded to 2 of his continuation bets on the flop.
Also, with both villain and I having full stacks, getting to showdown isn't going to be cheap for him and he should be aware of this.
Why did i minraise the flop on my 4bet? The biggest reasons were that with the texture of the board drawing hands weren't likely(rainbow paired) so i wasn't giving villain a good price for a draw and that a 4bet minraise looks to me like it is crying for a call or weakly bluffing. Which are the only two hands i could possibly have according to how i have bet - as i mentioned earlier.
With my current table image that of a relatively tight player i figured raising again was okay, besides the fact that it was easy to shutdown if i were to be raised again or called, since i had nothing at all and even i would'nt make another play at the pot : ).
For mathematical purposes, i think that this play works more than 1 time in 4 (getting villain to fold).
I do think there are two better ways to play this hand, however;
1). fold flop, since i played SC's and missed, i might as well wait for a better spot to play back at villain (like with a pair or draw).
2). flat call the flop and raise the turn hard, since that looks much more like what a hand with a jack would do.
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