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I like to break things down to basic one-sentence principles that can be considered at the table.
I've gone away and thought about this for a day, and here is how I'm understanding things:
1. We 3bet for value with hands that will be ahead of specific-villain's range when we *both* consider ourselves to have hit.
For example, a villain who is raising then calling our 3bets with AQ/AJ/ATs/KQ/QTs+/22-JJ. The flop is Q72r. If we stack off by the turn when we have TPTK no matter what the turn is, we'll have an equity edge on a big pot.
2. We 3bet light an amount that is a fraction of our value range against specific-villain - the more fold equity we are getting, the bigger the fraction.
Imagine a guy who we can profitably 3bet AT+/KJ+/TT+ exclusively for value, but who is also calling with a huge amount of fit-fold hands. That's to say that he's an extremely loose raiser, calls our 3bets very loose, but as a product of of his high amount of fit-fold hands, is effectively weak-ight on the flop. Here we're getting a good bit of PF FE, and a butt load of flop FE, so we'll be 3betting light almost as much as for value. This sounds to me like the same thing as isolating a limper with a 2bet, except we're isolating a 2bettor with a 3bet. Am I right?
So what's a smart amount then? I've read a few people say that against someone who drips fold equity, when we are in a good situation (position, stack size) we might want to put in 2 light 3bets for every 3 value 3bets. Sound about right?
3. If you can have an equity edge when you both hit by calling, but not by 3betting, or you wish to nut-camp (small pairs, weaker SCs) and are getting the right odds to do so, call.
4. If your hand isn't applicable to 1, 2, or 3, fold.
That's as much as I can nutshellize it. Any holes here, or mistakes?
Here's a few different guys, and how I might play against them:
-Villain raises lots, and calls our 3bets lots. He's not going away on the flop much either. This guy I'm 3beting with lots of value hands (big aces, KQ, etc). I might throw in the occasional bluff so he knows I don't always have a hand, but I'm doing this a tiny amount of the time compared to the amount I'm doing it for value.
-If I 3bet this next villain he's going to want to get it all-in preflop occasionally, but usually fold, and he's next to never calling. This guy I'm 3betting for value with the intention of getting it all in, but I'm also bluffing him lots, almost as much as I'm doing it for value, because of the excellent FE. This guy doesn't have to be a nit with his raises, he just has to be a nit with how he deals with our 3bets preflop. If he was a nit though, I might consider flatting with AK, etc.
-This villain calls our 3bets dominated a lot, and fit-folds a lot. We 3bet lots for value, and almost as much on a bluff.
So this brings me to what hands we should be bluffing with. If I have to see a flop, I'd like a suited connector. You can flop all sorts of stuff with it, even if you don't completely own the flop. Bottom pair+gutshot+BDFD, and other goofy stuff that is good for a bluff cbet. If we get called on the flop, there are a lot of cards that give us the right odds to shove the turn. Small pairs basically need a set, and that's it.
There's a hand ranking order in terms of show down value, with AA at the top, and 32o at the bottom, so is there a hand ranking order in terms of what's best to bluff with? If so, is JTs at the top, with 72o at the bottom like I'm thinking?
If I decide that it's right to value 3bet a guy with JJ+,AJs+,KQs,AQo+, and that I should be 3betting him light roughly twice for every three times I do it for value, should I be doing it with QJs,J9s+,T8s+,97s+,87s,76s,65s,54s, because the second range contains approximately 2/3 the amount of combos as the first? Or does it not work like that, and instead you just pick random crap roughly 2/3 as often as you've value 3betting him lately? Maybe it does work like that, but you think the hands I've picked aren't the best for light 3betting? If that's the case, hand ranking in terms of best to bluff 3bet with, anyone?
I'm still not sure about being in the blinds with a hand that we would call with IP. We have AQ in the blinds, decide that if we 3bet we'll be behind when we both connect, so we just fold, because we don't like calling OOP, even though we'd be ahead if we flatted?
Where am I wrong, or way off?
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