I thought this was kind of trivial, but it sparked heated debate between a few guys I showed it to. I stacked villain 4 hands ago when I raised A6s from EP and he called with ATs and we stacked off with his TP+NFD v's my top and bottom pair on A6Xtt flop. He open shoved the next hand, folded the two after than, then this one:


$0.25/$0.5 No Limit Holdem
6 players
Converted at weaktight.com

Stacks:
UTG ($23.12)
UTG 1 ($68.20)
Hero (CO) ($129.45)
BTN ($47.93)
SB ($41.28)
BB ($43.80)

Pre-flop: ($0.75, 6 players) Hero is CO
2 folds, Hero raises to $1.75, 1 fold, SB raises to $41.28, 1 fold, $39.53 to Hero ($127.70)?


So he might be tilting, or he might think we think he's tilting. He did fold two hands before this one after his tilty open shove the hand after the beat, but then again this is the first hand v's me since then. Debate was mainly on whether he was tilting and shoving something like a top 40% hand v's me and just folded absolute crap the last two, or has he got a premium hand and wants me to think he's tilting?