too eager?

[nossodo]

See if I can remember all details correctly, 10+1 tourney, blinds 30/60. I have 3800 in small blind, bb has about 2000 and a middle player maybe 4500. Several limpers me included, bb raises to 100, mp calls and I call with pocket 2:s.

Flop comes 742 rainbow and I am first to act. I'm thinking this flop definetly missed the preflop raiser and most probably the mp. Im thinking they or at least one of them has a pocket pair. I'm first to act so I throw out a bet of 200 into the 700 pot designed to look like a steal, bb raises to about 800 which probably means he had a big pocket pair, (he had the aces), mp reraises and I have to go all-in to call, which I did, he had pocket 44s beating my pocket 2s.

I have two ideas myself, one, I wanted to place high and it was a good spot, I would have had over 10000 if I had won and it's rare with two trips at a time.

My other idea is that I should have listened to the mp, I bet but that could probably be ignored, bb raised me and mp reraised him and i should have realized I was beat.

The more I think about it i realize I should have folded, what could he have had, A really high pocket pair which he slowplayed preflop would be the only other explanation I can find perhaps only AA or even KK, 2 pair would be just too weird. The only reasonable hand he could have had betting that way would be 44 or 77 if he didn't make a really stone cold bluff.

[a500lbgorilla]

{Moved from HHH}

-'rilla

[ZenOffsuit]

See if I can remember all details correctly, 10+1 tourney, blinds 30/60. I have 3800 in small blind, bb has about 2000 and a middle player maybe 4500. Several limpers me included, bb raises to 100, mp calls and I call with pocket 2:s.

Flop comes 742 rainbow and I am first to act. I'm thinking this flop definetly missed the preflop raiser and most probably the mp. Im thinking they or at least one of them has a pocket pair. I'm first to act so I throw out a bet of 200 into the 700 pot designed to look like a steal, bb raises to about 800 which probably means he had a big pocket pair, (he had the aces), mp reraises and I have to go all-in to call, which I did, he had pocket 44s beating my pocket 2s.

I have two ideas myself, one, I wanted to place high and it was a good spot, I would have had over 10000 if I had won and it's rare with two trips at a time.

My other idea is that I should have listened to the mp, I bet but that could probably be ignored, bb raised me and mp reraised him and i should have realized I was beat.

The more I think about it i realize I should have folded, what could he have had, A really high pocket pair which he slowplayed preflop would be the only other explanation I can find perhaps only AA or even KK, 2 pair would be just too weird. The only reasonable hand he could have had betting that way would be 44 or 77 if he didn't make a really stone cold bluff.

I would have done the same thing thinking he had an overpair to the flop and wanted to push people out. It is very rare that two people have trips so I am going to believe that I am ahead most of the time here.

[Rondavu]

I think your read was outstanding, and it made perfect sense. I'm not sure I would fold trip ducks however. I see why you had to think about it. The BB could have had JJ against AA for all you know. It could have been 99 against QQ, or even A7 against TT. I think I would call because set over set is so rare.

It's impossible to know because it's a 7 high board. Lots of hands beat the board. The true answer lies in how tight the middle player is. If he's a truly tight player I might fold. With no info I go all in.

[nossodo]

Thank you for your input, it helped me.