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Putting Opponents on a hand

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  1. #1

    Default Putting Opponents on a hand

    1. $10 18 person SnG, on the bubble.

    Villian had raised the last 2 hands. He showed down QJ which he raised UTG at 100/200 blinds 6 handed. My image is tight.

    What hands bet the flop like that? What are hero's calling ranges, keeping the bubble in mind?

    PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em Tourney, Big Blind is t400 (5 handed) FTR converter on zerodivide.cx

    MP (t5404)
    Button (t2495)
    SB (t5467)
    Hero (t6379)
    UTG (t7255)

    Preflop: Hero is BB with X X
    1 fold, MP raises to t1200, 2 folds, Hero calls t800.

    Flop: (t2100) 4, 6, 8 (2 players)
    Hero checks, MP bets t4179 (All-In), Hero ???


    2. $10 18 person SnG

    PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em Tourney, Big Blind is t150 (7 handed) FTR converter on zerodivide.cx

    SB (t5785)
    BB (t1715)
    UTG (t6365)
    Hero (t998)
    MP2 (t2267)
    CO (t1869)
    Button (t8001)

    Preflop: Hero is MP1 with X X
    UTG raises to t600, Hero ???
  2. #2
    1. He is just in first here, and could really have anything from the nut straight to 1 over card.

    You can't even thing of calling without:
    AK/any pair/OESD
    I would call with any two pair + made hand. Overpairs JJ+ certainly, I am not sure about 99-TT... although a call is certainly justifyable given a read. About the worst I would call was would be 97 high end of the OESD. I would probably fold a 6 or 4 here. 8 good kicker K or A I might call as well if villian is loose raiser /stealer pre-flop


    Hand 2... Is simply a mathematical question. If he is raising X% of his hands then you should call (or rather push) with your top Y% of hands such that it's +EV. For example, if he is raising with 1/2 his hands you should push with anything that has ~45% equity (not 50, because of the dead blinds) vs an average hand.

    If you don't know (very likely), I think you have to push with any ace any pair KQ (unless you think the UTG 4x raise indicates an actual hand.... in which case you are better off open pushing anytwo at the next opportunity).
  3. #3
    anyone else? I suppose the 2nd hand is hard to comment on, but I'm more curious about the 1st. How often does this overbet mean bluff or just a pp that wants to protect?
  4. #4
    Staresy's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by fjuanl
    How often does this overbet mean bluff or just a pp that wants to protect?
    depends on the player I find. Some people raise with a pp and 99% of the time proceed to jam it in on the flop regardless. I would go with that.

    I am really curious about these overbets (I created a seperate post).
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  5. #5
    You got the results? I put him on 7 7 - 10 10, or A 8, or 9 10s.
  6. #6
    Quote Originally Posted by Staresy
    Quote Originally Posted by fjuanl
    How often does this overbet mean bluff or just a pp that wants to protect?
    depends on the player I find. Some people raise with a pp and 99% of the time proceed to jam it in on the flop regardless. I would go with that.

    I am really curious about these overbets (I created a seperate post).
    Lately I have been playing a ton. The 10's arent so much different from 5's.
    I wish I has stats for this .. I can tell you this for observing.

    1. He has an overpair
    2. He has a PP of 7 7.
    3. He hit one card out of that flop and knows he is ahead now .. SO he pushes.

    If that flop is monotone .. It means I have two suited cards and like to gamble. I just went through this last tourny ... I had TPTK with A K suited.. wrong color though for me.. Guy pushed in .. I instacalled and got flushed out. And he called my PF raise .. with 8 5 suited. 4X the BB in MP.. no limpers in front. So not only did that tear up shit more.. Another guy called with 7 4 suited... Geez.

    HU Ive overbet the flop when I have a PP over the board... If he got any of that flop .. Hes calling ! Works to your benefit sometimes in situations.. But early and through the middle.. I would never do that.

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