I'm playin 1/2 NL on PS... Here is the hand.
http://www.pokerhand.org/?620174
I was fairly certain he had to have had a set... All i remember was he was pretty solid, he had a PFR of like 2%. Is it possible to lay this down? I had a similar situation about 2 hours earlier where the villain had top two pair, but there was less reraising back and forth, and his push happened on the flop. I had bottom set that hand and won it. Any comments are welcome. Thanks.