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 Originally Posted by Raoni_Poker
the call is mathematically rigth. But in extreme situations like this, I wonder if we would profit more thinking more conservately...
If the call is mathematically correct, then how can it "actually" be incorrect? The only way this could be possible is if we had some information which the mathematical model doesn't take into account. Three things come to mind.
1. The time left for the blinds to increase. Since you didn't point that out, this is probably not a factor here.
2. The fact that we'll pay the SB next hand. I would like to see some math behind this reasoning. I find it hard to believe that the time when (not whether!) we have to pay 150, while we still have almost 10 times that much left, could have that much impact. Also note that the fact that time left for the next SB is minimal means that the time left for the next BB is maximal.
3. The fact that we are better than our opponents. As a much better player, we can sometimes pass a marginally +EV situation, because there will probably come a better spot. Whether this is the case here depends on how marginal the call is exactly. I haven't run the analysis myself, but I have a feeling that it's not marginal enough to fold it. Remember that part of the reason why you can consider yourself a better player than your opponents is your ability to spot this profitable and counter-intuitive call.
 Originally Posted by Raoni_Poker
ICM recommends to call with ATC. Of course, 32o is at the bottom of this range.
32o is at the bottom of ANY preflop calling range that includes it. This doesn't mean that calling with it is always marginal. Imagine that instead 3:1 odds you were getting 100:1 pot odds. The statement "ICM recommends to call with ATC. Of course, 32o is at the bottom of this range." would still be true, but the call would be very profitable.
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