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You mean the pot odds calcs for the flush draw?
Once villain has moved all in, there is 2000 in the pot, and it costs us 1000 to call. So pot odds are 2:1, and so we have to win more than 33% of the time for this call to be profitable. Question is: is this the case?
To simplify, let's say our flush, should we make it, wins all the time (not exactly true, but close enough for an estimate). There are 9 cards in the 47 hidden cards that give us our flush. So there are 38 cards that do NOT give us the flush on the turn. So the probability that we do NOT make the flush on the turn is 38/47=80.85%. If we do NOT make the flush on the turn, the probability that we also do NOT make the flush on the river is 37/46=80.43%. So the probability that we do NOT make the flush on both the turn and river cards is 0.8085*0.8043=0.65=65%. So the probability that we DO make the flush on either the turn OR the river is 100%-65%=35%, which is more than 33%, so the call is profitable in the long run.
To estimate these probabilities in play, there is the rule of 2 and 4 that gives you the approximate odds of making your hand on the turn or on the river. Basically, multiply your outs by 2 to find how much chance you have to make your hand on the turn and by 4 to find out how much chance you have to make it on the turn or river. So for the above example with 9 outs, multiply 9 by 4=36%, which is pretty close from the actual 35%. This rule becomes less precise beyond 9 outs and you can refine it as follows: calculate your rule of 4, then subtract the number of outs beyond 8 to get the "adjusted" rule of 4. Then divide by 2 to get the "adjusted" rule of 2. So with 12 outs, adjusted rule of 4 is 4*12=48, subtract 4 (number of outs beyond 8) -> 44%, and divide by 2 to get the adjusted rule of 2: 22%.
If you don't like calculations, you can also get a real time odds calculator like Texas Calulatem.
The above calculations are true in a cash game, where chips have a value proportional to the amount you paid for them. This is not true in a SNG, because the chips $ value is NOT proportional to the amount you paid for them, because of the pay structure of SNG's. This is the "ICM" effect (much more maths and probabilities involved here!). Basically, the less chips you have, the more each chip is worth in $ equivalent. The more you have, the less each chip is worth in $ equivalent.
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