Is this the way to think about the "Gap Theory?"

[LockLow34]

I've got T10000

My opponent has T4000

My opponent is dealt AQ and goes all-in

I'm dealt KT

I'm a 60/40 dog to AQ, but have my opponent outchipped 5/2, so a call of his all-in is a good play? Is this, in essence, the 'Gap?'

[Wet_DreaMer]

hmm I always thought the gap concept referred to the difference in hands that is needed to bet compared to that which can call.

To apply it to that situation, you could say that in order to call that 4000 chips preflop, you would need to have a hand of at least AQ? or such

While to push all in in that position you could bet that same 4000 with any hand all the way down to A2o?


The gap basically is talking about the advantage that bettors have over callers, and how aggression can win games.

I think =/

[Sed]

I always thought that it had to do with the difference in hands you would raise with in a position vs. the hands you would call with in that same position.

eg:
Dealt KJ in the CO
If its folded to me I raise
However, if it is raised from early position I probably lay it down

- sed

[DaNutsInYoEye]

Wet_Dreamer is right. The Gap Theory is that you need a better hand to play against someone that has bet into you then you need to open the betting yourself. (Think blind stealing). The size of the gap depends on your opponent. If they are really loose the gap might be really small or none at all.

[mike4066]

The "gap" refers to the difference between which hands you can raise with, and which hands you can call with.
In general "you need a stronger hand to call than you do to raise. "


You don't want to call an all-in with KTo if you know your opponent is on AQ..

But PUSHING with KTo would be different

[LockLow34]

Thanks folks. Had a bit of a brain fart there regarding what the gap was

[Toasty]

I'll just add the "Gap Concept" exists in Ring games as well as tourneys but the GAP is larger in tourneys and can extend to stack size too.