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  1. #1
    Razvan729's Avatar
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    Nov 2010
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    thats the thing, in case he has a set, QQ+, i have 48% to win,but i have to put 2,98$ in a 3,7 $ pot so thats not profitable.
    my best chances are if he's AQ+ or AJ....

    but, how i know that? in one case its profitable, the other isnt, equity is 47% but the money i put in is 81% of the pot? so please explain like a 2 years old.... how does that make it profitable?
  2. #2
    Quote Originally Posted by Razvan729 View Post
    thats the thing, in case he has a set, QQ+, i have 48% to win,but i have to put 2,98$ in a 3,7 $ pot so thats not profitable.
    my best chances are if he's AQ+ or AJ....

    but, how i know that? in one case its profitable, the other isnt, equity is 47% but the money i put in is 81% of the pot? so please explain like a 2 years old.... how does that make it profitable?
    Ok, let's say there's $10 in the pot. Villain bets $100, a massive overbet.

    There's now $110 in the pot, and we have to call $100. If we win, we make $110, if we lose, we lose $100, so assuming we have exactly 50% equity with no chops possible, we will win $10 every two hands.

    I'm sure someone can explain it better than me, but if we have 50% equity or more, then no bet can price us out except in extremely rare circumstances involving rake. With 48% equity, we have to consider how much dead money there is ($10 in the example I just gave), but we don't need a lot.
    Quote Originally Posted by wufwugy View Post
    ongies gonna ong

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