edit: sorry for the ramble, i get to the point at the last bit
Now I'm probably way off in my reasoning here but that's what this forum is for so here goes...
if i just call the squeeze pre does this not lead to me making mistakes postflop? like either folding the best hand on some runouts or calling off when i'm way behind on other runouts? whereas if i get all in pre i realize all my equity without being able to make a mistake postflop.
i realize this reasoning is likely erroneous but i can't quite put my finger on exactly why. i guess it could be just wrong to get all in pre here to begin with, though that depends on how much of villain's squeezing range he jams/calls/folds, so that's probably where i should start!
so i loosely assume that this type of villain would be jamming like ATs+, ATo+, 88+, something like that, maybe KQs, KQo (how does this range look, not sure if it's too wide or too narrow?)
okay now i've got my thoughts in order. if i 4bet pre for value here i think i need to be 50%+ vs. his calling AND his jamming range! is this correct?
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