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  1. #1
    spoonitnow's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Poopadoop View Post
    Person A did not do anything differently from Person B, so letting A earn 100x the salary of B is unjustified imo.
    Person B picked the wrong thing to work at.

    Moreover, what you're describing here is at the core of the victim mentality. It's the difference between what's fair and what's equal. They aren't the same.
  2. #2
    Quote Originally Posted by spoonitnow View Post
    Person B picked the wrong thing to work at.
    So 'blame the person who has less for them having less' is your answer in a nutshell.

    Let's take a different approach then. A and B are identical twin footballers and work equally hard. Both are drafted to the big leagues. On the day before signing his contract, B gets hit by a drunk driver, and suffers career-ending injuries.

    What's the argument now for why A "deserves" £3m a year and B "deserves" £30k?
  3. #3
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    Quote Originally Posted by Poopadoop View Post
    So 'blame the person who has less for them having less' is your answer in a nutshell.
    In this situation, yes.

    Quote Originally Posted by Poopadoop View Post
    Let's take a different approach then. A and B are identical twin footballers and work equally hard. Both are drafted to the big leagues. On the day before signing his contract, B gets hit by a drunk driver, and suffers career-ending injuries.

    What's the argument now for why A "deserves" £3m a year and B "deserves" £30k?
    In this completely different situation, A can earn £3m/year, and B can earn £30k/year. What they can produce is what they deserve. B does not have a claim to what A is earning.

    Whether or not B deserved to be hit by a drunk driver and the injuries that came with that is a completely different question, but I don't expect you to understand that because your first inclination is to define B as a victim.

    And of course I have sympathy for your perspective. I just think it's better for everyone, on average, if that perspective is not the one that's used as the basis for policy.
    Last edited by spoonitnow; 01-20-2018 at 03:22 PM.
  4. #4
    Quote Originally Posted by spoonitnow View Post
    In this completely different situation, A can earn £3m/year, and B can earn £30k/year. What they can produce is what they deserve. B does not have a claim to what A is earning.
    So what if B gets out of the hospital and gets hit by lightening. Now he can barely afford to pay his first bill and has to sell his house to pay his second one. Meanwhile A is living the high life and sleeping with supermodels. Tough shit?


    Quote Originally Posted by spoonitnow View Post
    your first inclination is to define B as a victim.
    If every time I point out an inequality arising through no fault of a person's own, you call that defining them as a victim as if that's some artificial construct I've come up with, then you must believe there is no such thing as good or bad luck in terms of people's salaries.

    Further, if B had any kind of bad luck that caused him to have a lower earning potential than A, all other things being equal in terms of talent, abilities, hard work, etc., then what difference does it make what you label that? It's bad luck and has nothing to do with 'deserving' anything.


    Quote Originally Posted by spoonitnow View Post
    And of course I have sympathy for your perspective. I just think it's better for everyone, on average, if that perspective is not the one that's used as the basis for policy.
    Ok, fair enough.
  5. #5
    spoonitnow's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Poopadoop View Post
    So what if B gets out of the hospital and gets hit by lightening. Now he can barely afford to pay his first bill and has to sell his house to pay his second one. Meanwhile A is living the high life and sleeping with supermodels. Tough shit?
    Yes. A is under no obligation, moral or otherwise, to pay for B's misfortune. Forcing A to pay for B's misfortune is theft.

    Quote Originally Posted by Poopadoop View Post
    If every time I point out an inequality arising through no fault of a person's own, you call that defining them as a victim as if that's some artificial construct I've come up with, then you must believe there is no such thing as good or bad luck in terms of people's salaries.
    What I said was: "...your first inclination is to define B as a victim." You seem to misunderstand what I mean, so I'll clarify: My first inclination is to assume that he's strong enough as a human being to overcome his hardships (which can include accepting charity given voluntarily from A or some other party) and achieve his potential, whatever that may be after his hardships, in spite of those hardships. One consequence of that is that I don't believe we need to force someone at gunpoint to give what they have to B just because he has been unlucky (ie: theft). This is what I mean as opposed to defining B as a victim (not to be confused with saying he wasn't a victim of some terrible shit that happened).

    Quote Originally Posted by Poopadoop View Post
    Further, if B had any kind of bad luck that caused him to have a lower earning potential than A, all other things being equal in terms of talent, abilities, hard work, etc., then what difference does it make what you label that? It's bad luck and has nothing to do with 'deserving' anything.
    Regarding the bold, I just want to reiterate that the difference isn't in labeling what happened to him; it's a difference in labeling him as a person.
  6. #6
    Quote Originally Posted by spoonitnow View Post
    Yes. A is under no obligation, moral or otherwise, to pay for B's misfortune. Forcing A to pay for B's misfortune is theft.



    What I said was: "...your first inclination is to define B as a victim." You seem to misunderstand what I mean, so I'll clarify: My first inclination is to assume that he's strong enough as a human being to overcome his hardships (which can include accepting charity given voluntarily from A or some other party) and achieve his potential, whatever that may be after his hardships, in spite of those hardships. One consequence of that is that I don't believe we need to force someone at gunpoint to give what they have to B just because he has been unlucky (ie: theft). This is what I mean as opposed to defining B as a victim (not to be confused with saying he wasn't a victim of some terrible shit that happened).



    Regarding the bold, I just want to reiterate that the difference isn't in labeling what happened to him; it's a difference in labeling him as a person.

    The whole premise of your model seems to be that people get what they deserve in terms of their earnings,and if even they don't that's not a good enough reason to redistribute wealth.

    So, if A makes £3m a year due at least in some part to good luck (or lack of bad luck if you will), whereas B makes a lot less than that, A is in his rights to say 'not my problem, luck smiled on me and not someone else' to the government who would take some of his salary (a portion mind you, not all of it) and use it to pay for B's lightning burn treatments?
  7. #7
    spoonitnow's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Poopadoop View Post
    The whole premise of your model seems to be that people get what they deserve in terms of their earnings,and if even they don't that's not a good enough reason to redistribute wealth.

    So, if A makes £3m a year due at least in some part to good luck (or lack of bad luck if you will), whereas B makes a lot less than that, A is in his rights to say 'not my problem, luck smiled on me and not someone else' to the government who would take some of his salary (a portion mind you, not all of it) and use it to pay for B's lightning burn treatments?
    Your issue is that you're determining what B deserves based on what A is earning. That's not how deserving something works.

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